If the simple interest on a sum of money for 2 years at 5% per annum is Rs.50, what will be the compound interest on same values

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Let the amount Rs 100 for 1 year when compounded half yearly, n = 2, Rate = 6/2 = 3%

\begin{aligned}
Amount = 100(1+\frac{3}{100})^2 = 106.09
\end{aligned}

Effective rate = (106.09 - 100)% = 6.09%

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

It is clear from question that Ram's share after five years = Sham's share after seven years
Hence we can conclude following :
\begin{aligned}

\text{(Rams's present share)}\left(1 + \dfrac{5}{100}\right)^5 = \text{(Sham's present share)}\left(1 + \dfrac{5}{100}\right)^7\\
=> \dfrac{\text{(Ram's present share)}}{\text{(Sham's present share)}}= \dfrac{\left(1 + \dfrac{5}{100}\right)^7}{\left(1 + \dfrac{5}{100}\right)^5} \\ = \left(1 + \dfrac{5}{100}\right)^{(7-5)} = \left(1 + \dfrac{5}{100}\right)^2 \\ = \left(\dfrac{21}{20}\right)^2 = \dfrac{441}{400}

\end{aligned}
Ram's present share : B's present share = 441 : 400

\begin{aligned}

\text{As amount is Rs.3364, Ram's share = }3364 \times \dfrac{441}{(441+400)} \\\\
= 3364 \times \dfrac{441}{841} = 4 \times 441 = \text{ Rs. 1764}
\end{aligned}

So Sham's share is = 3364-1764 = 1600

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

Let Rate will be R%

\begin{aligned}
1200(1+\frac{R}{100})^2 = \frac{134832}{100} \\

(1+\frac{R}{100})^2 = \frac{134832}{120000} \\

(1+\frac{R}{100})^2 = \frac{11236}{10000} \\

(1+\frac{R}{100}) = \frac{106}{100} \\
=> R = 6\%
\end{aligned}

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

\begin{aligned}
=> (8000 \times(1+\frac{5}{100})^2) \\
=> 8000 \times \frac{21}{20}\times \frac{21}{20} \\
=> 8820
\end{aligned}

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

\begin{aligned}
S.I. = \frac{1000*10*4}{100} = 400 \\
C.I. = [1000(1+\frac{10}{100})^4 - 1000] \\
= 464.10
\end{aligned}

So difference between simple interest and compound interest will be 464.10 - 400 = 64.10