A completes 80% of a work in 20 days. Then B also joins and A and B together finish the remaining work in 3 days. How long does it need for B if he alone completes the work?

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

As Rahul and Sham together can finish work in 35 days.
1 days work of Rahul and Sham is 1/35
Rahul can alone complete this work in 60 days,
So, Rahul one day work is 1/60
Clearly, Sham one day work will be = (Rahul and Sham one day work) - (Rahul one day work)
\begin{aligned}
= \frac{1}{35} - \frac{1}{60} \\
= \frac{1}{84} \\
\end{aligned}

Hence Sham will complete the given work in 84 days.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Firstly we will find 1 day work of both A and B, then by adding we can get collective days for them,
So,
A's 1 day work = 1/10
B's 1 day work = 1/15

(A+B)'s 1 day work =
\begin{aligned}
\left(\frac{1}{10}+\frac{1}{15} \right) \\
=\left(\frac{3+2}{30} \right) \\
= \frac{1}{6}
\end{aligned}

So together they can complete work in 6 days.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Please note in this question, we need to answer part of work for a day rather than complete work. It was worth mentioning here because many do mistake at this point in hurry to solve the question

So lets solve now,
A's 1 day work = 1/18
B's 1 day work = 1/9 [because B take half time than A]

(A+B)'s one day work =

\begin{aligned}
\left(\frac{1}{18}+\frac{1}{9} \right) \\
=\left(\frac{1+2}{18} \right) \\
= \frac{1}{6}
\end{aligned}

So in one day 1/6 work will be done.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

To calculate the answer we need to get 1 man per day work and 1 woman per day work.

Let 1 man 1 day work =x
and 1 woman 1 days work = y.
=> 6x+5y = 1/6
and 3x+4y = 1/10
On solving, we get x = 1/54 and y = 1/90

(9 men + 15 women)'s 1 days work =
(9/54) + (15/90) = 1/3

9 men and 15 women will finish the work in 3 days

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Do not be confused, Take this question same as that of work done question's. Like work done by 1st puncture in 1 minute and by second in 1 minute.
Lets Solve it:

1 minute work done by both the punctures =
\begin{aligned}
\left(\frac{1}{9}+\frac{1}{6} \right) \\
=\left(\frac{5}{18} \right) \\
\end{aligned}

So both punctures will make the type flat in
\begin{aligned}
\left(\frac{18}{5} \right)mins \\
= 3\frac{3}{5} mins
\end{aligned}