A alone can complete a work in 16 days and B alone can do in 12 days. Starting with A, they work on alternate days. The total work will be completed in

Answer: Option D

Explanation:

A+B 1 day work = 1/8
B+C 1 day work = 1/12
A+B+C 1 day work = 1/6

We can get A work by (A+B+C)-(B+C)
And C by (A+B+C)-(A+B)

So A 1 day work =
\begin{aligned}
\frac{1}{6}- \frac{1}{12} \\
= \frac{1}{12}
\end{aligned}

Similarly C 1 day work =
\begin{aligned}
\frac{1}{6}- \frac{1}{8} \\
= \frac{4-3}{24} \\
= \frac{1}{24}
\end{aligned}

So A and C 1 day work =

\begin{aligned}
\frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{24} \\
= \frac{3}{24} \\
= \frac{1}{8}
\end{aligned}

So A and C can together do this work in 8 days

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

As per question, A do twice the work as done by B.
So A:B = 2:1
Also (A+B) one day work = 1/18

To get days in which B will finish the work, lets calculate work done by B in 1 day =
\begin{aligned}
=\left(\frac{1}{18}*\frac{1}{3} \right) \\
= \frac{1}{54}
\end{aligned}
[Please note we multiplied by 1/3 as per B share and total of ratio is 1/3]

So B will finish the work in 54 days

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

As Rahul and Sham together can finish work in 35 days.
1 days work of Rahul and Sham is 1/35
Rahul can alone complete this work in 60 days,
So, Rahul one day work is 1/60
Clearly, Sham one day work will be = (Rahul and Sham one day work) - (Rahul one day work)
\begin{aligned}
= \frac{1}{35} - \frac{1}{60} \\
= \frac{1}{84} \\
\end{aligned}

Hence Sham will complete the given work in 84 days.

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

To calculate the answer we need to get 1 man per day work and 1 woman per day work.

Let 1 man 1 day work =x
and 1 woman 1 days work = y.
=> 6x+5y = 1/6
and 3x+4y = 1/10
On solving, we get x = 1/54 and y = 1/90

(9 men + 15 women)'s 1 days work =
(9/54) + (15/90) = 1/3

9 men and 15 women will finish the work in 3 days

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

Do not be confused, Take this question same as that of work done question's. Like work done by 1st puncture in 1 minute and by second in 1 minute.
Lets Solve it:

1 minute work done by both the punctures =
\begin{aligned}
\left(\frac{1}{9}+\frac{1}{6} \right) \\
=\left(\frac{5}{18} \right) \\
\end{aligned}

So both punctures will make the type flat in
\begin{aligned}
\left(\frac{18}{5} \right)mins \\
= 3\frac{3}{5} mins
\end{aligned}